Bio
WiiChat Member
- Jan 25, 2009
- 1,078
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Thanks for the input, Bio. I feel at peace when reading something from you, not because you are taking a neutral position, but rather you write brief, easy-to-follow paragraphs. I like your style; my style differs in that I type as much as I would talk; my typing is more realistically inclined (that is, sounds more like someone just speaking it (I guess), whereas yours is short and to the point and is easy to follow.
I appreciate that very much, Turk. Especially coming from someone as intelligent as you. =)
At this point, I fully realize that the main argument is that omniscience cannot exist when free will does, or a paradox (impossibility) will ensue. Does anyone else feel like explaining that there is actually logic in the existence of the two? I'm going to end up repeating myself, though most of the time I don't mind it. Just want to see other theists' point of views...I'm Muslim, in case anyone didn't figure that out already.
Okay, I will try to put my two cents into this.
I'll create my own scenario that I noticed from browsing websites: A Father leaves food sitting out in the kitchen and walks away to see if his child, once he walks into the kitchen, will eagerly eat it.
The child still could have went to his father first out of courtesy, but he didn't, and his father knew that he wouldn't. What the father knew, however, did not deny that the child had a decision in that instant. His father just has an intimate understanding of his child. In this scenario, choice and foreknowledge co-exists.
Then we may interject by saying that Dad rigged the situation. But then we would be talking about two different things. To rig something is to deny a choice (like a slot machine that only triggers a win every 500 turns); denying the ability to take an alternative. However, that ability (choice) was still undeniably present with the child.
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